Questions & Answers

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Q. One of my colleagues has questioned me about why fish and generally anything from the sea is halaal. I know that it does not matter who catches the fish and no 'slaughtering ' is required. From our perspective this would be a blessing from Allah but I'd like to convince him from any other point of view.
A. The rationale behind slaughtering is to allow the expulsion of all excess blood from the animal. This is what makes the animal halaal. Furthermore, for health reasons, too, it is necessary that most of the blood of the animal is removed before consumption. Congealed blood inside the body causes bacteria to develop in the meat. For this reason animals that are killed by the force of a blow or heavy fall, etc, are haraam because the excess blood has not been removed.In the case of fish, it has no blood, so there is no need for slaughtering.
Secondly, the sea water is a natural preservative and protection against bacteria. Remember that in the older days sailors used to use salt to preserve their meat while at sea for lenghty periods. Hence, if we consider the very slight blood-like liquid in the fish's body, the effects of that, if any, are neutralised by the natural anti-bacterial propensities of the ocean. T his is strictly from a medical viewpoint. On basis of shariah, the main reason why fish need not be slaughtered is that there is no blood that has to be expelled from the body, which is what is required in land-animals to render it halaal.

Q. Are the Jews and Christians of today who believe in One God and Moosa
and Isaa (alayhimus salaam), respectively, "Mu'mins" i.e. are they entitled to
Jannah? Or is belief in the prophethood of Muhammad (sallallahu alayhi wasalam) a necessary requirement of belief? Why?
A. Jews and Christians have actually been referred to in the Quran as non-believers or kuffar. Belief in the prophethood of Nabi Muhammad (Sallallahu alaihi wasallam) is necessary for Iemaan. Without it iemaan is incomplete. Hence no matter who they are, Jews, Christians, Zoroastrians, Hindus, all have to embrace the Nubuwwat or Prophethood of the final Messenger.
The reason: He was the last messenger, so all previous faiths and creeds were necessarily abrogated by his advent. He was predicted in the scriptures by these same Prophets whom they profess to follow. Writers and researchers have proven the existence of such predictions and forecasts in the Old and New Testaments. Our claim of finality is based also on logical reasoning, as referred to above. Every era had its own prophet and code of beliefs. This code or shariah would continue to serve the peoples of the time until a new prophet came with a new set of laws. If the new prophet brought no such new code then even he would be obliged to follow the prophet before him. Hence, the same logic will apply here, too. With the coming of the last Messenger, all previous religious codes had become null and void. If the enemy argue that they don't accept him as a prophet, we will use the above method, inter alia, to prove them wrong (that is, the predictions in the bible). I will later outline some other ideas substantiating the prophet hood of Our Nabi (sallallahu alayhi wasalam), Insha-Allah.

Q. Can one wear purdah part time?
A. Purdah is a way of life and is as much part of the female ensemble as is her make up and cosmetic adornment. No woman or girl will beautify herself part time. Females don't wear make up and cosmetics and attractive clothing sometimes and neglect it at other times. Likewise with purdah for the lady who has realized what is required of her. However, if a woman sometimes observes hijaab and sometimes doesn’t, that is better than one who totally discards it. We will not condemn her for this, for at least she is trying and is making a start. Nevertheless, she must be told that one day she will have to observe purdah fully. This tantamounts to one sinning against Allah sometimes and not sinning at other times. 

Q. If one pretends to get married, is it considered a valid marriage?
A. According to the hanafi mazh-hab, even if a man jokingly utters the word of marriage to a woman in front of two witnesses, the nikah is valid and they are husband and wife. So conducting a marriage ceremony under false pretences is considered a valid and legal nikah according to Shariah. All the rights and laws of such a nikah will apply. Of course, two witnesses (at least) is a pre-requisite. 

Q. If one breaks off an engagement does he get a sin?
A. Firstly engagements are not Islamic practices and has no Shar'ee significance. However, an engagement is a sort of pledge or promise to marry, hence if one breaks off the engagement for no valid, Shar'ee reason, he will be committing the sin of breaking a promise or pledge. Besides this sin, there will be additional wrong-doing in that the heart of a young girl intending to settle down was broken. Morally and spiritually this is an extremely bad act. 

Q. Is it makrooh to wear short-sleeves when performing salaah? Why? And outside of salaah? And similarly for the topee?  Did the Prophet (sallallahu alayhi wasalam) always perform salaah with his topee? Or with his turban? Is the omission of a sunnat act (like wearing the topee and wearing long sleeves) in salaah, makrooh? Should not this ruling apply to outside the salaah as well?
A. Bismillahi Ta-aala: Almighty Allah says in the Quran: “O Children of Adam! Wear your beautiful apparel at every time and place of prayer.” verse 31, Surah 7. This verse commands that when offering salah our dress should be "beautiful", i.e. one should be presentable and decently dressed. The implication is, therefore, that every form of dress which in Shariah constitutes beauty and decency, should be adopted for salah. By the same token, any form of dress or any garment that is worn on casual occasions or when doing dirty work, or for sport, etc. must be shunned when performing salah. Decent and beautiful dress is that which the Shariah has proposed and sanctioned. Wearing short sleeves is not considered presentable ensemble even in worldly circles. Hence we find people attending executive meetings or court hearings, etc., do not wear such clothing. What meeting can be more virtuous and important than the meeting of Allah, and which court deserves more respect than His? As for the topi, no one can deny that it is part of Islamic dress and an item of respect. In the light of this verse of the Quran it is only correct that the topi should be included in our dress when offering prayers. As stated above, a decent dress is that which falls within the ambit of Shar'ee sanction. Likewise the turban, too, represents a respectful form of dress. The main idea in namaaz is to display respect and humility. Hence even garments worn out of pride or which resemble the dress of proud people should be avoided during salaah. This is precisely the reason why wearing the trouser below the ankles during salah is not permitted. If it is argued that no one wears their trousers below their ankles because of pride then I would ask why doesn’t anyone wear them above the ankles, and the answer is that it makes one look foolish or embarrassed, etc. So if there was no element of pride in this matter, why the above answer? I just mentioned this by the way.
Since we base this law on the aforementioned verse of the Quran, and that verse distinctly mentions the occasion of salah, we are constrained to confine this type of dress to salah. For the very reason our Ulema have granted much latitude to Muslims in their apparel outside salah. The shirt and trouser (above the ankles) are fine, they don't emphasise on the topi or turban outside salah as much as in salah, nor on the kurta. However, they strictly apply this rule to salah because of the command of Allah in the above verse. Remember that in this verse Allah has issued a command, and generally a command of Allah denotes a strict or stringent application. That's where the makrooh term comes in. You will agree that neglect of a command of Allah is certainly makrooh if not haraam. The verse under study, therefore, calls upon us to don such garb at the time of salah which conforms to Shariah and which is not the dress of proud people.
Yes Rasoolullah (sallallahu alayhi wasalam) did wear a topi during salah, as well as a turban, and sometimes both. In fact there is an authentic hadith that states the Messenger of Allah never walked around bare-headed. He either wore a topi or turban or both.

Q. Do you get a sin for gossiping about non-Muslims, such as movie-stars?
A. Yes, it is not permissible to make the gheebat of even a kaafier. However, if such a statement is made which had that person heard, he or she would not have felt hurt. For example, one says that a certain singer is breaking the law of Islam because singing is haraam, this would not constitute gheebat because that sinner will not be hurt when told that he is breaking the law of Islam. What does he care about Islam? Further, if one speaks ill about them in order to highlight the corruption they are causing and in order to save others from being led astray then not only is this permissible, it is even rewarding and may at times be even wajib to do so.
As for the trend among some people of discussing and gossiping about these kuffar celebrities and their boyfriends and girl friends and their love lives, etc., this is haraam not because it is gheebat but because it creates corruption and mischief in the mind. 

Q. Is it permissible to allow a non-Muslim child (minor) to touch the holy Quraan or any page or ayah of the Quraan?
A. It is not permissible to do so unless that child makes a wudhu, even though it is not yet a Muslim. 

Q. Does the time for Asr, according to Hanafies, begin exactly 2 hours before Maghrib, throughout the year, as most perpetual calendars indicate? Shouldn't it change with the change in the length of the day in summer and winter?
A. You are quite right when you say that the times should differ according to seasons. That is why we do not approve of some perpetual calendars which indicate a fixed starting time for a particular salah through the year. If you look at recent time tables, especially those devised scientifically by some Professors in Pakistan, you will notice that all the salah starting times differ from season to season. The duration of a time would also alter. In winter the Fajr and Maghrib times are shorter because Subuh sadiq (dawn) begins later in winter than in summer and the Esha time comes in earlier than during summer seasons. This is due to the obvious change in sunrise and sunset times. 

Q. Some of the students at varsity claim that even though the time for the Hanafi Asr begins later than the Shaafi Asr, the time for reading Zuhr (for both Shaafis and Hanafies) expires at the advent of the Shaafi Asr. In other words, during the time between the beginning of the Shaafi Asr and the beginning of the Hanafi Asr, Hanafies can perform neither Zuhr nor Asr. Is this correct?
A. There is one view among the Muslim Jurists which holds that between Zuhr and Asr there is sort of "no man's land" period, during which neither Asr nor Zuhr could be read. However, the majority of Fuqaha have opted for the standard viewpoint that we can read our Zuhar till about 2 hours before sunset. If, however, due to circumstances a hanafi reads his Asr in the Shafi time, there is no need to repeat it. But this must not be done deliberately.

Q. A woman goes in full Purdah and after a month her husband tells her she must not wear purdah anymore because he can’t take it, it’s to much for him. But he didn’t force her out of it and she agreed not to wear it anymore. Is this right? Or sinful? Can she stop wearing it or does she still have to wear it?
A. To wear hijaab or purdah is a duty of every woman whether she is married or not. Some girls believe that they must start wearing this after marriage, perhaps for the sake of their husbands. Once it is understood that this is a basic duty not related to marriage, you will also understand that the husband has got no say in the matter. In fact it is his duty to encourage and instruct the wife to do this. If he does not, then he has failed in his duty.
Having said this, there is one point which must be clarified. When you say the husband does not want his wife to wear purdah or to observe hijaab, what exactly do you mean? Does he only want her to remove her niqaab (veil)? Or does he want her not to wear jilbaab or outer cloak at all? Is he asking her to discard all this outside the home or is it confined only to the house? Is it that he wants her to wear tight fitting clothes? Does he want her to mix freely with other men?
If it is only the niqaab, I would make a concession here on the condition that the woman only moves out of the house in the company of the husband. If this is confined only to inside the home then obviously there is nothing wrong. As for the remaining points I raised above, I cannot find any concession and the husband is being Islamically unreasonable to make such demands. As for the last point, this is extremely serious and has been severely condemned.
The wife should ask the husband: By me discarding my purdah, I am exposing myself to the looks of men folk? DO YOU WANT EVERY SINGLE MAN IN THE STREET FEASTING HIS LUSTFUL GAZE UPON ME AND DROOLING OVER MY BODY!? Because this is what happens to every woman who goes out uncovered. Only the kafier woman is insensitive to this. In fact, she likes men to cast their gaze upon her and become the centre of attraction and also the cause of man giving vent to his lust.
In short, the wife is under no obligation to obey the husband in sin. However she must still respect him and not be rude or abusive.
May Allah give us all the proper understanding of Deen.
One afterthought. Perhaps the husband feels that he is not so "strict" on Deen, so he does not want his wife to be the same. This is a misconception due to poor understanding of Deen. Purdah is wajib just like our salah, qurbani, fitra, etc. Who ever discards qurbani or fitrah or salah because he is not "strict" on Deen, or because he is not yet "ready" for it, or because it is "too much" for him?
It is a matter of understanding the Deen properly. 

Q. What is the Islamic length for a woman to grow her hair?
A. The length of woman's hair should be at least till the middle of her back. If it grows lower, that is allowed, but not shorter. 

Q. Is it permissible to get engaged and only get married one year later?
A. This is not permissible because it will lead to the couple courting or communicating with each other. There is no such a thing as engagement in Islam. It is not permissible for boy and girl to communicate before marriage. They may be intending to get married, but they are still non-mehram to each other. They have yet not got married. If I intend to have meals, it doesn’t mean my hunger is satisfied! It will be once I start eating and finish the food.

Q. What is the difference between a "Mu'min" and a "Muslim"?
A. A Mumin is one who has uttered faith with the tongue and has believed with the heart. A Muslim is one who does the physical actions to confirm and ratify the faith at heart. So practical deeds make a Muslim, while belief in the heart makes a Mumin. Every Muslim is a Mumin, but not the reverse. This is a technical explanation. In present day and common usage these two terms are used interchangeably. We say Muslims when we actually mean Mumins, and vice-versa.

Q. Please reply to the following questions with proper references of Quran and Hadith. What is the exact kaffara for breaking an oath?
A. The kaffara for breaking an oath is one of three things: To free a slave, or feed ten poor people two meals for the day, or to clothe ten poor people according to the minimum requirements. You have the choice of doing any one of the three. One who cannot afford one of these three, should fast three consecutive days. This is mentioned in the following verse of the Quran:
Allah will not call you to account for what is futile in your oaths but He will call you to account for your deliberate oaths: for expiation (kaffara) feed ten indigent persons on a scale of the average food of your families; or clothe them; or give a slave his freedom. If that is beyond your means then fast three days. That is the expiation for the oaths ye have sworn. But keep to your oaths. (Surah Maa-ida (5) verse 92) 

Q. Can an oath be broken if the oath keeps some one from proper shahada (witness)?
A. The Messenger of Allah (sallallahu alaihi wasallam) said: "He who takes an oath and afterwards sees something better (than what he has sworn to do), should break his oath and do what is better, and give kaffara." Narrated by Imam Muslim.
In the case you mention, if that shahaada or evidence is important insofar as it restores the haqq or the right of one who has been hurt or to whom injustice has been done, then it will not only be better but necessary to break the oath that is preventing one from speaking the truth and safeguarding the rights of others. Rasoolullah (sallallahu alaihi wasallam) said that the best of witnesses are those who testify before they are asked to do so. (Muslim) This obviously implies that when the need is for one to testify, there must be no delay. If there is no such need, nor is it better, then the oath should not be broken.

Q. Under what condition can an oath be broken?
A. One reason for breaking the is the abovementioned situation. Besides this, when circumstances demand that the oath should be broken, such as when one swore an oath to do sin or harm to another, then such oaths should be broken and kaffara be fulfilled. This was referred to in the hadith above. Likewise when observing the oath brings upon one hardship and difficulty.

Q. What kind of oath is prohibited?
A. An oath based on lies or falsehood, or an oath in which a sin is mentioned, or an oath in which one bears false testimony, or in which the haqq of another Muslim is being usurped, these are examples of prohibited oaths. These are mentioned in several Hadith of Nabi Muhammad (sallallahu alayhi wasalam).

Q. Do you perhaps know or have an idea if it is permissible for males and females to wear platinum rings?
A. Please note that it is not permissible for men and women to wear platinum rings, or rings made from any other metal besides silver. In addition to this, women may also wear rings of gold. Men are not permitted to wear gold at all. Besides silver or gold rings, other items of jewellery may be worn by women, irrespective of what metal these are made from.
As far as rings are concerned, only silver for men, and only gold and silver for women. Platinum is, therefore, out.

Q. A lot of readers want proof of your platinum ruling (question & answer above) and some were even talking bad about you. I guess some people don't like to read what they hear and start questioning the author and his credentials etc. etc. I don't like to challenge the Ulama but sometimes readers want to know more details.
A. No problem about the comments and emails. Thanks to Allah I don't take negative criticism (and the lowest form of wit - sarcasm) too much to heart, and basically that is what it is, negative, spiteful, anti-Ulema criticism. What surprises me is the number of "muftis" your email drew in. All venturing their own interpretation of the ruling. People failed to understand my statement, but none of the critics were able to substantiate what they say from other Ulema or reliable sources.
For those who want to know the reason why: well do they know why the Faradh of Fajr is two and not four, and why Magrib has three and not two or four rakaats, and why Juma is read aloud and not silent as Zuhr, and why stone the jamaraat and why run between the two green lights, and why two and a half percent of zakaat and why so little fitra, etc., etc. and the reasons for all the thousands of other Islamic rulings, some of which they practice and most of which they neglect? So why not add this ruling to the many others, whose reasons are hitherto unknown or unclear. If you want proof, well, that we can furnish. But then, the same question comes up: Do you know the proofs for all the other thousands of Islamic rulings in existence? Is anyone aware of the proof for collective dua after the five daily faradh salaah, or the proof/reason for the methods used to determine qiblah?
For those who want proof from Quran and Hadith, are they sure they can prove EVERY RULING OF DEEN from Quran and Hadith?
When the Holy Messenger of Allah (sallallahu alayhi wasalam) himself informed the Sahaba during his lifetime that they would not find rulings for latter Islamic problems in the Quran and Hadith, and would have to resort to Ijtihaad and/or analogical reasoning, what makes us so brazen as to demand proof from Quran and Hadith? Rulings of Shariah are derived from three sources: Quran, Hadith and the rulings of Sahaaba and former Jurists. The answer I gave is derived from the latter source.
We needn’t go into the make up and composition of platinum. Platinum is not gold or silver. Even if it did not exist in former times, it does not fall under the category of gold and silver. The value of a commodity does not alter or influence the Shar'ee ruling. An alloy is also considered as ordinary metal, even for zakaat purposes.
I must apologize, though, for one aspect. When I checked my answer again, I realized that for the laymen it needed more clarity......
So:

1. Women are allowed to wear any gold or silver jewellery. (Rings bangles, necklaces, etc.)

2. Women are also allowed to wear bangles, earrings, bracelets, necklaces made of other metals besides gold and silver.

3. Women are not allowed to wear RINGS made of metal (other than gold or silver). They may wear gold and silver rings, as stated in 1 above.

4. Men may not wear gold at all.

5. Men may wear silver rings only, but preferably not to do so, for according to some Jurists this is makrooh (abominable).

6. Men may not wear rings made from any metal besides silver.

Please note that this does not mean that one cannot own or possess platinum. The issue here is about the wearing of rings made from this metal. One may buy and sell and own platinum without restriction.
I hope this puts my previous answer into perspective.
Finally, for those who don't fancy my answer, you are at liberty to consult other Ulema. If you do, please email me their findings for my own benefit.

Q. What is the meaning of sumum?
A. This means the scorching smoke and fumes of Hell-Fire but not the fire itself.

Q. Is ones beard allowed to join the hair at the temple?
A. Normally the beard does link up to the hair on the sides of the head or beneath the temple. There is nothing wrong with this. If there is any other meaning you intend, then better to show me when we meet one day.

Q. Is it permissible to cheat the taxman?
A. This is not cheating in Islam. It is, rather, safeguarding one's haqq or property. This is permissible as long as one does not place oneself at risk and stand to be disgraced, for it is equally haraam to make a fool or a disgrace of yourself. Otherwise, 'cheating' or evading tax is allowed. The reason for this is that taxation in the form that modern day governments practice is haraam in Islam. It is sheer zhulm or oppression, usurpation of wealth. Since we are on the subject of taxes, it will be useful for a person in your position to understand the Islamic perspective of taxes. We cannot say that taxation in general is haraam or that there is no taxation in Islam. A Muslim State is allowed to tax its citizens in cases of necessity and need. Before proceeding further, please remember that zakaat is not a tax and we are not speaking of zakaat here. Zakaat is an ibaadat. Neither are we speaking of Ushr, which is actually zakaat on crops. Yes, there are two forms of taxes which the Shariah has levied; One is called kharaaj, also a land tax but levied on non-Muslims only, and the other is the jizya, a tax levied on only male non-Muslims living under the protection of the Muslim State. Now besides these, a Muslim government can impose a tax on its people when funds are required for necessary purposes, such as defence spending, building or repairing bridges, roads, canals, dams, irrigation systems, subsidizing farmers, putting up housing projects, etc., etc. However, the tax must not be exorbitant and one who refuses to pay cannot be prosecuted or punished. Whoever pays this tax must do so with a free heart. And such taxes may not be used except for the purpose intended. Hence I said that the way taxes are being collected and utilized nowadays makes it haraam because most taxes are used either for haraam purposes or to fill the pockets of the councillors, mayors, and other politically active workers. This is not allowed in Islam. However, since a fair share of the tax is used for work considered valid in Islam, as I listed above, a taxpayer should pay a certain amount of tax to the government. And if at the time of paying tax he makes an intention that because part of his tax will go towards pensions, grants, housing schemes, or other community and/or welfare and social causes, Allah must reward him for contributing money (in the name of tax) towards these noble causes, then Allah will definitely reward him. I think this must be the only time when doing a haraam brings one reward!
This is just a summary of taxation in Islam. I shall give you more details later on Insha-Allah. Remind me in a few days time.

Q. There are students in the Medical faculty who justify 'sex-changes' (i.e. physically changing the body from male to female or vice versa) by comparing it to 'orthodontic braces'. They claim that in both instances the person is not happy with some characteristic of his and therefore permanently changes it; and seeing that permanently moving the teeth (braces) is allowed in Islam, why aren't sex-changes? So, what is the limit in altering what Allah has given us if we have the power to do so?
A. The analogy between orthodontic braces and the transformation of ones gender is flawed for several reasons. Firstly, the use of braces is to correct a deformity in the growth of the teeth, hence such a procedure falls under medical treatment which is allowed in the Shariah, just as people who suffer from any other deformity by birth or one that has developed later in life due to an accident or whatever, resort to treatment or surgery to rectify the problem. In the use of braces for the teeth, or undergoing surgery for a deformity in the bones or limbs of the body, one is not altering the normal creation of Allah. It must borne in mind that a deformity is not the norm for a human being. While some types of deformities or abnormalities of the human body may occur from birth, these are not natural or normal. Hence, one is permitted by Shariah to resort to surgery or medical assistance in treating these natural defects. For this reason Rasoolullah (sallallahu alaihi wasallam) granted permission to a Sahaabi by the name of Arfajah, who suffered a damaged nose in battle, to undergo surgery and have an artificial nose made of silver implanted. However, even in these types of treatment, there are limits, rules and regulations. For example, a female who has lost hair and appears ugly in appearance, may acquire false hair made of a synthetic substance or of a halaal animal, but she is prohibited from utilizing human hair.
As for the sex change, from the above you would have realized that this is not undertaken to rectify a physical deformity or illness. Here the issue is more psychological and emotional (if I am using the right words). These operations are not done because one suffers from deformity or some form of physical blemish. There is a mental imbalance that leads people to believe they "don't belong" to the sex they were originally created.
If it is argued that people who have these operations suffer from the belief that they belong to the opposite sex hence they feel out of character remaining as they are, and they strongly believe that their destiny was chalked out as a member of the opposite gender, then I will reply that such attitudes stem from a number of factors, all non-related to medical deformity or ailment. For example, frequent association with females thus giving rise to feminine tendencies and vice versa (development of male tendencies by females), psychological imbalance which instils within them a feeling of wanting to belong to the other sex, natural feminish ways, etc. These problems definitely need treatment, and their treatment will be the same as any other psychiatric or psychological problem, such as counselling, advice, and sometimes even prescribing a zikr, etc. But sex-change is not the way to go. Furthermore, Rasoolullah (sallallahu alayhi wasalam) prohibited a male from imitating a female and vice-versa, so it follows that when imitating feminish ways and habits is wrong, it would be far worse for a male to attempt to actually become a female and vice versa.

Q. We are seeking valid explanation of the following question in the light of Quran and Sunnah. Many Muslims believe that when a person passes away, his/her chapter is closed. Nothing good, like recitation of Holy Quran, Dua-e-Maghfirat, distribution of food, clothes, other things for the poor and needy people, will be of any benefitfor the departed soul. No good deed/act done by us for Allah Ta’ala in their name will benefit them. On the contrary we believe that Allah the Almighty will shower mercy on the departed soul and will raise his/her status to a higher plane. To which extent are we correct or incorrect? Please guide us so that we may follow the correct path.
A. Jazakumullah for your important query. Definitely any dua or good act performed for the dead will benefit them as long as the deceased is a Muslim. This is established from several ahadith of Rasoolullah (sallallahu alaihi wasallam). One may recite Quran, give sadqah, fast, etc. and convey the thawaab to the dead and that dead person will benefit there from. One can convey the reward of any act for which the doer gets rewarded by Allah. This is called iesaal-e-sawaab. So those who say that Allah will shower mercy on the dead soul because of the good acts done for him or her, are correct. They are also correct in saying that Allah will elevate that person's rank and status.

Q. I would like to know the importance of 3^rd, 7^th, 10^th, 20^th and 40^th day after a person who dies which holds importance in some sectors of Muslim community?
A. These days have no importance in Shariah. Instead it was the people of the past who invented these days to observe customs and rituals for the dead. Remember that if we wish to offer any ibadat, we must make sure that what we intend doing is found in the Quran, Hadith, or lives of the Sahaaba. If not then we must shun such practices. One does not find in the Quran and ruling, nor in the hadith any command to observe 3^rd or 7^th or 40^th day etc. Nor would you see this in the lives of the Sahaaba or great Ulema of the past, in spite of the fact that these people had greater zeal and enthusiasm for Deen and Ibadat than us.
When people invent their own practices and create the impression that such innovations are part of Islam, this is called Bid'ah.
The Holy Messenger of Allah said: Whoever introduces into this Deen of ours something which is not part of the Deen, is rejected. (Bukhari)
So these are not Islamic practices and we humbly ask Muslims not to indulge in acts of this nature. You may recite for the dead or make dua for them on any day of the year. In fact, we should make iesaal-e-sawaab for them daily, not only after 3 or 7 or 10 or 40 days.
I hope this answers your query.

Q. If a woman wishes to fast because she has taken an oath for some reason,
e.g. to get a better job, child to get better if sick etc. etc. Can this niyyat also serve to pay back fast she has missed during ramadaan? In other words could she make a double intention? I suppose this may be a silly question but I need to know.
A. A vow or Nazr being an independent compulsory act, cannot be incorporated into another act of worship. The Quran Shareef, in Surah Hajj, specifically commands the fulfilment of vows. This implies that a vow has its own form of fulfilment and cannot run concurrently with another act of worship. Hence, a vow of fasting must be fulfilled by observing an independent fast with a separate intention and cannot be fulfilled concurrently with a qadha fast.
This ruling is mentioned specifically in almost all the Books of Fiqah, so it cannot be a "silly" question! For that matter, no question on Deen is silly. Jazakumullah for the query.

Q. I would just like to know if a Muslim Male can make Nikah with a Christian female? I have posed this question before to well known people who speak in Musjids and on Islamic Radio Stations and the response I received was that it is permissible to do so as the female (Christian) is a believe of the book. Is this True?
A. In answer to this I would like to quote the fatwa of Abdullah bin Umar (radhiyallahu anhu), one of the famous and close companions of Nabi Muhammed (sallallahu alayhi wasallam). When he was questioned about this, he recited verse 221 of Surah Baqarah: "Do not marry unbelieving women (idolaters) until they believe;" His answer was based on one of the statements of Nabi Muhammed (peace be upon him) that even the Christians are idolators. It thus follows that when marriage to idolators is not permissible, as clearly stated in the above verse, marriage to Christians being the same thing, would also be prohibited. Besides, the Christians nowadays do not follow the original teachings and religion of Nabi Eesa. Most of them are only Christian in name, while as far as belief is concerned, some of them have no concept of religion at all.
In short, the Quran has prohibited marriage to idol-worshipping women, and we believe the Christians, too, fall under this prohibition.
Those who give sanction to marriage with Christians quote the verse: "(Lawful unto you in marriage) are chaste women who are believers and chaste women among the People of the Book revealed before your time when ye give them their due dowries and desire chastity, not lewdness nor secret affairs." (Surah 4, verse 6). However, in this verse one condition is that the Christian female must be chaste, which is rarely found among the promiscous societies of today. Although this quality is mentioned for the believing (Muslim) women as well, but from other verses and traditions we learn that the quality of chastity for a Muslim women is not a condition for validity, merely a prefrence to be adopted. The permissibility of marrying Christian women is mentioned twice in the quran, and on both occasions the quality of chastity is stated as well. Secondly, this practice was in vogue in the early years of Islam, when the Deen was at its peak. Later on the Ulema prohibited Muslim men from marrying Christian females because the iemaan of the former was at stake. Men were weakening and even losing their iemaan by falling for Christian girls, while children that were born in such a marriage had a torrid task of identifying with either of the parents. When the kids grow up they invariably opt for what suits them and is convenient. They adopt that religion which does not restrict them from pursuing un-islamic activities. Eventually the Muslim father loses those children to his/her christian grandparents, and so forth. It was therefore, necessary that such marriages be disallowed. The basis for enacting a prohibition on such marriages is the fatwa of Abdullah bin Umar (radhiyallahu anhu) as stated above.
Let it not be understood that a fatwa of this nature runs contrary to the quran, because from verse 221 of Surah Baqarah we have a general rule of non-permissibility from the Quran itself, which represents good enough grounds on which to base the fatwa of prohibition. In other words, the Quran has made provisions for both types of rulings, permissibility and non-permissibility. We gave preference to the latter for reasons of safeguarding one's iemaan, etc., as outlined just now.
To summarize, it is not permissible for a Muslim to marry a Christian, because the Quran has forbidden marriage to disbelievers who worship idols and Christians are among them. (They, too, revere and bow before the statue of Nabi Eesa and Hazrat Maryam (alaihimus-salaam).

Q. I have been asking a question to different people and seem to find different answers. Are women allowed to cut their hair short? Some people say no because the hair must cover your janaazah. Some say yes because the Prophet's (sallallahu alayhi wasalam) wives cut their hair when he past away. But what about those people who cannot grow their hair long enough to cover their body? It's a puzzling question and I would like to here your opinion?
A. IN THE NAME OF ALLAH. There are several aspects to this question. Let us deal with each one individually.

1. Those females who cannot grow their hair long enough for reasons not of their own doing, do not fall within the purview of our discussion. An exemption will apply to them in any case. The Quran states that Allah Jalla Shaanuhu does not burden a soul with what it cannot bear. (Surah Baqarah, verse 286)

2. The action of the wives of Nabi Muhammed (sallallahu alaihi wasallam): It appears some people are using this as a justification to trim their hair short. Firstly, no where in this hadith does it state that these ladies cut their hair "short", as some women propose to do. The exact translation of the Arabic wording is: The wives of the Messenger of Allah (Durood be upon him) would "take off (hair) from their heads until it (the hair) resembled the wafrah". 'Taking off hair from their heads' means trimming. Wafrah, according to the commentary of Imam Nawawi in Muslim, is hair that falls onto the neck. The narrator says that their hair resembled the wafrah, but was not exactly like the wafrah. In other words, it would be longer than the wafrah. From this we deduce that after cutting the hair, it would fall onto the shoulders. This is in contrast to some women who cut their hair even shorter than this, which is totally prohibited. Thirdly, consider the reason why the noble wives did this. After the demise of their beloved husband, The Holy Messenger, they preferred to remove styles of beauty from their lives so as not to become attractive any more, as stated by Imam Nawawi in his commentary on Saheeh Muslim. This was done out of sheer respect for the Messenger of Allah, that even though no man could marry them, yet they preferred to appear unattractive and unadorned. This is the exact opposite of why our women wish to trim their hair. Our sisters intend to beautify themselves, especially when considering the mad desire to emulate and imitate fashions and styles of the west. For this reason, Allama Ibni Aabideen As-Shaami states in his magnum opus on Fiqah Raddul-Muhtaar, that it is not permissible for women to cut their hair in emulation of non-Muslim females. This falls under the prohibition known as tashabbuh bil-kuffar or imitation of non-Muslim fashion, which has been specifically forbidden in the hadith of Nabi Muhammed (Sallallahu alaihi wasallam). He said: "That person is not from my Ummah, who adopts the peculiar style of foreigners (i.e. disbelievers)." This alone is a good and strong enough reason why cutting the hair for women should be disallowed. Taking this further, the hadith on the nable wives cutting their hair do not specifically state which of the wives did this. So it is vague. Next, the narrator is giving his own observation. Remember, this incident is not narrated by any Sahaabi or any of the wives of the Holy Prophet. Instead the narrator is a tabi'ee (one who lived in the times of the Sahaaba) and a male. With the laws of pardah strictly in vogue during that wonderful period of Islam, it was always going to be diffcult to exactly describe the hairstyle of a women, least of all the wives of the Holy Prophet. We can, therefore, safely say that the narrator is basing his statement on an assumption, and that alone is poor reason for permissibility, when the majority of Scholars over the centuries have ruled differently.

3. The hadith strictly forbid a women from shaving her hair. (Nasaai) The commentators unanimously opine that by shaving is meant any form of removing the hair, whether by cutting, trimming, or shaving. It is common knowledge that women do not normally shave the head, even in the time of Rasoolullah (sallallahu alaihi wasallam). It is, therefore, highly likely that the meaning here is "making the hair short in any form."

4. One reason why the Fuqahaa (Jurists) of Islam prohibited the cutting of the hair is emulation of men. It appears in the book of Imam Bukhari that Rasoolullah (sallallahu alaihi wasallam) cursed women who imitate men, and vice versa. If the hair is, therefore, cut short making the woman look like a man, this will not be permitted.

From the above points we learn that the Scholars of Islam have issued a ruling of prohibition on a woman cutting or trimming their hair for two main reasons: Imitation of the styles of unbelievers, and/or imitation of the hair of menfolk, which reasons are clearly mentioned in authentic hadith.
As regards the action of the wives of Nabi Muhammad, we explained that this was done, not for the above two reasons, rather to abstain from beauty and attraction after the demise of their Master. Indeed, in those days, keeping long flowing hair was considered beauty and adornment, unlike today when values and ideals have changed and the opposite is being considered beauty, i.e. cutting and trimming. Again, this reversal of values is the brainchild of the west, trend-setters for the entire world.
One important point that must not escape our attention here is that the women who desire to cut and trim their hair are those who emerge from their homes uncovered. Seldom would one find women in pardah or hijaab seeking a concession in this regard, unless for reasons of health or hygiene, which is not within the scope of this discussion. If cutting the hair is required for health reasons, it will be perfectly lawful to do so. Those females who cover their heads when leaving home have, obviously, no reason to be concerned of the length and style of their hair. Who sees them, and consequently, who knows what type of hair they possess. It is only those who emerge bareheaded and deem it necessary to display a style in keeping with the trends and traits around them, who seek to shorten their hair. But this is paradox of behaviour! On the one hand they break the law of hijaab by going out bare-headed, while on the other they seek permission to cut their hair! Yet the former is a far greater violation!
Aspersion towards kuffar fashion is the very concept which Rasoolullah (sallallahu alaihi wasallam) wished to eradicate from the minds of Muslims. Not to be slaves to non-Muslim fashion. In short, the woman who emerges from home uncovered, has already breached the first and most important code of Islamic dress: covering the hair. Cutting and trimming must be dealt with later.
And Allah Knows Best for His Knowledge is Absolute.

Q. My father aged 72, was sleeping outside on his bed when suddenly my neighbours' wall from the second floor fell on him as well as approximately a truck load of sand. He died on the spot, but he never had a single wound or broken skin (as one would expect if bricks and cemented material fell on one).
People say he died a Shaheed. But I would like to know it from a learned person.
A. You will be pleased to know that indeed your father is a shaheed (martyr). It is reported by Hazrat Abu Hureira (radhiyallahu anhu) that Rasool-e-Paak (sallallahu alaihi wasallam) said: "There are five types of shaheed: One who dies in a plague, one who dies from stomach ailment, one who drowns, one who is crushed by a falling wall, and one who is killed in Jihad." (Bukhari and Muslim)
May Almighty Allah grant your father high stages in Jannah and give you sabr-e-jameel and reward for your loss- aameen.

Q. We would like to know about souls. We came to know by your answer that our father died and has attained the status of a Shaheed, as he was crushed under a falling wall. Is it true that the souls of dead persons who have died in an accident, or as in "naagahani aafat", their souls remain on the earth for the period of time they were supposed to live alive but had died accidentally. We will be very thankful for your guidance.
A. Jazakumullah for your interest in matters of Deen. May Allah reward you. As for the question, firstly it cannot be said about anyone that he or she has died before their time. In the Quran Shareef Almighty Allah states: And no soul can die except with the permission of Allah at its appointed time. This aayat-e-kareema tells us that when a soul leaves this world, it goes at a time fixed by Allah Ta-ala. Even if death has occurred unexpectedly, the situation is the same. To us human beings a death may appear unexpected, since we have no knowledge of taqdeer and future events. We look at the method or cause of death and attribute it to such causes. But to Allah, every death is at a time determined in advance. Even the method and cause of death is pre-determined by Allah.
Secondly, there is no evidence in the Shariah (Quran, Hadith, and writings of the Ulema) to suggest that souls remain on earth after the demise of the physical body. Death means the departure of the soul (rooh) from the physical body, thus rendering this body lifeless. What happens to the soul then, if it has become separated from the corporeal body? Well, according to the hadith if it was the soul of a pious person, it goes up to the heavens in the esteemed company of the angels (malaaikah), with much glamour and glory. Afterwards, when the body is buried, the soul is re-instilled into the body so that the individual can be awakened for the questioning by Munkar and Nakeer. Subsequently the good person is rewarded with a stay of peace and bliss in the qabr.
If it was an evil soul, it goes to the depths of the earth where Hell is situated and is punished in a variety of ways. This soul is also brought back to be re-infused in to the dead body for questioning and for punishment. But under no circumstances does the soul remain on earth.
I have heard from my former Shaikh, Hazrat Moulana Maseehullah (rahmatullahi alaihi) of Jalalabad, India, that sometimes a thing called SOORAT-E-MITHAALI (the likeness of a person) is seen on earth after a person has died. This is when Allah rewards one who has done good deeds, by showing people the likeness of that person doing the same good deeds even after he/she has died.
However, this likeness is not the rooh or soul. This resembles a shadow with more detail.
I shall do some more research on this topic, and should I come across different findings, I shall communicate these to you Insha-Allah.

Q. I would like you to enlighten me on this point. According to our belief, once the first Soor is blown by Hazrat ISRAFEAL AS, the entire world and skies will disintegrate and fall apart with great shock, fire and sound. How long will this process continue in time frame until the second Soor will be blown when all the dead will come out alive from the graves at the stage of judgement?
A. From what I have read in the books of Islam on this subject, no time is given on how long it will take for the entire world to be destroyed when the first trumpet (Soor) is blown. However, between this blowing of the trumpet and the second soor, there will be a period of forty years, as stated by Imam Qalyoobi, Suyooti and others.
And Allah knows Best.

Q. What does Quraan and the Sunnah say about a person who leaves the Deen of Islam?
A. One who denounces Islam is called a Murtad. This is mentioned in Surah Baqarah, verse 217, where Allah states: AND HE AMONG YOU WHO TURNS AWAY FROM HIS RELIGION (BECOMES MURTADD) AND DIES IN THE STATE OF DISBELIEF (KUFR) THEN THE ALL THE DEEDS OF SUCH PEOPLE ARE NULL AND VOID, IN THIS WORLD AND IN THE HEREAFTER, AND SUCH PEOPLE ARE AMONG THE INMATES OF THE FIRE, TO DWELL THEREIN FOREVER.
This verse tells us three important points: 1) A person who turns away from Islam is called a Murtadd. This is the Arabic word in this verse. 2) Such a person's deeds are destroyed and rendered void. 3) Such a person, if he/she dies in the state of Kufr, will remain eternally in Hell.
On this basis the Ulema have ruled that all the salaah, zakaah, fasting, even Hajj, and other acts of worship are destroyed when one exits from Islam.
Rasoolullah sallallahu alaihi wasallam said: "If one changes his religion (i.e. turns from Islam to kufr) then kill him." (Bukhari) Hence the Fuqaha (Scholars of Islam) are unanimous that the Murtadd must be slain. However, such a ruling may only be executed in an Islamic state, not in the non-Muslim countries where we live, since there is no Shar'ee court to oversee punishments of this nature. Basically the Murtadd must be given an opportunity to air his doubts about Islam. The Ulema would have to clear and answer these doubts. When adequate time and effort has been exhausted on this issue, and reasonable answers have been advanced to expel and doubts and aspersions against Islam, and in spite of all this the Murtadd refuses to come back into the fold of Islam, the law of execution will apply. However, as stated earlier, this may only be carried out under the auspices of a Muslim court.
In our case (Muslims living under kuffaar rule), we will apply the initial stage of conciliation: trying to convince him/her to come back into the fold. For this there is no time limit. However, once it is established to a degree of certainty that the Murtadd will not budge, it behoves all Muslims to cut off ties with such a person and ostracize him/her from the community.
If the Murtadd reverts to Islam, all past is forgiven and such a person must be accepted back into the fold. However, should Hajj become faradh upon that person once again after re-embracing Islam, he/she will have to repeat that Hajj. (Fatwa Tatarkhaniya, AL-Bahrur-Raaiq)

Q. We are now in the month of Safar. I am curious to know, is it ok to buy anything i.e. a house, car or get married during this month?
A. There was a superstition in vogue during the days of ignorance (pre-Islam) about Safar being a month of badluck and misfortune. Nabi Muhammad Sallallahu alaihi wasallam dispelled this notion in one of his statements when he said: "There is nothing (superstitious) about Safar." (Bukhari)
In latter generations people still maintained this belief. Let it be clearly stated, that there is no such a thing in Islam. No month or week or day harbours misfortune or ill-luck. Yes, the actions we do determine good or bad luck for ourselves.

Q. While making sunnat or nafil Salaah a person joins me thinking I am making faradh Salaah thus wanting to make jammat. What do I do in this situation? Is the faradh Salaah of this person accepted? Do I begin reading aloud or do I continue as normal?
A. Regarding the question you must remember that one who wants to read faradh salah cannot read behind one who is reading nafl or sunnat salah. So in the case you mentioned, you should not start reading aloud for you are making sunnat and the muqtadi who just joined is making faradh. His salah will not be valid. After the salah you must inform that person that you were making sunnat or nafl and that he should repeat his salah. If you were making faradh salah then you should start reading aloud the moment you become aware that someone has joined you. From that point onwards you also make a niyyat of imamat for the person/s who just joined. Such a jamaat will then be valid.

Q. Why is imaan more important than good deeds i.e. why does a non-believer who does good deeds all his life go to Jahannam, while a believer who murdered, raped, stole, lied, etc go to Jannah?
A. To understand this we need to first understand the reality of Iemaan or Faith. Iemaan comprises three elements:

1) belief in, and acceptance of the Oneness of Allah,
2) belief in life after death,
3) acceptance of the Prophethood of Nabi Muhammed.

Now understand where practice or deeds come from. Good deeds represent a practical expression of one's iemaan or belief in Allah, hence the precedence of Iemaan over deeds. For one who has believed is required to display that belief in a physical way. Otherwise, if mere expression of Iemaan was enough, the entire system of Islam would be severly undermined or compromised. Because then everyone would claim to be a Muslim and hide behind the concept of "hidden" iemaan. (As some people are doing today, claiming that their iemaan is in their hearts, hence they do not stand in need of showing off their iemaan through practical deeds.) Further, one who has developed true iemaan is automatically driven to express that iemaan and love in physical worship of Allah.
There is, thus, this link between faith and deeds. However, the believer who has thus believed, in spite of his eagerness to please, is not aware and familiar with the type of deeds to fulfill in order to express his serfdom to his Master. He requires instructions as to what, how, and when deeds are to be executed. This is natural and even logical. Take the example of a worldly contract. An employee has signed on in a company and has been given a contract. Having landed the job, he now needs a job description. Only then can he fulfill his obligations. So Iemaan is like the contract with Allah, while the good deeds constitute the Muslim's job description. One who has not entered into any contract cannot by any manner of means understand the nature or extent of the work required, and even if such an individual unilaterally does work for that company, his efforts, no matter how noble and philanthropic, would not be entertained or accepted. This is a norm of life. In exactly the same way, the non-believer is firstly in the dark as to the description of deeds, and secondly, whatever noble actions he performs can never conform to Islamic standards.
Furthermore, and this is more spiritual than scientific, there would be no substance and sincerity in the good deeds of such a person.
Moreover, one who does not believe in life after death will not have true motivation or objective in practice. Likewise, one who does not believe in Prophethood, will not have correct guidance in practice.
Iemaan is like the visa of the hereafter. The most famous and sophisticated of diplomats will never be allowed entry into a country without the correct passport and visa, while the sleaziest of characters will breeze through emmigration just because he has the proper documentation.
One more point about Iemaan and good deeds. Belief in the Oneness of Allah is the cornerstone of Islam because the believer has actually given over to an unseen Object his heart and mind. It really takes some doing and a great element of risk to submit your heart and mind to the Unseen God. The unbeliever has not done so and is not prepared to do so and finds it extremely arduous to forsake a lifelong system of thought and belief. Thus, the sacrifice he is required to make is not forth-coming. It is this sacrifice that Allah wants to first see in the individual. Belief in the unseen is highly praised in the Quran. Such is the appreciation and admiration by Allah for this sacrificing of ones very mind and heart, two most precious and prized possessions of a human, that He is prepared to reward that with Paradise even if the believe lacks good deeds (sometimes).
A word of caution: Not every unbeliever who does good in this world is destined for hell with certainty, just as not every evil-doing Muslim is guaranteed paradise on account of his iemaan. The explanation to remember here is that it is possible that Allah may reward a good-doing kaafier by guiding him to iemaan and Islam just prior to his / her death. People may not even be aware that a certain non-Muslim had embraced Islam before death. On the contrary, it is possible that the evil-doing Muslim becomes so detested by Allah that he loses iemaan before death and ends up in Hell. So these are matters we leave unto Allah, who will be punished and who will be not. For purposes of maintaining system and order in our lives, we observe a blanket rule: whoever dies without Iemaan will be punished eternally in Hell. And we cannot consider that person a kaafier. Those unbelievers who lived lives of disbelief and died are considered kaafier unless something to the contrary forces us to change our view.
To summarize: Deeds are the natural consequence of iemaan. one who has true iemaan will not rest unless he or she fulfils the basic deeds of Islam. Deeds cannot be performed in a way that will please Allah except by one who is enrolled into the Deen of Allah, and has recited the shaaadatain. A non-Muslim may do lots of good, but lacks the trade-mark of iemaan.

Q. I live in Canada with my 3 children and no husband. The government gives us $875, and our home cost's are around $1500. My question is how much Idaat money should I get from my ex-husband?
A. During your iddat you are entitled to the same expenses as you were receiving while you were married to your husband. So, if for example, while married you received $1,500.00 per month then that is what you are entitled to during the iddah or waiting period. Whatever you receive by way of state grant from the government is in no way related to what you must receive from your husband. That money is yours to keep and does not form part of the husbands contribution.
After the iddat is over, your husband does not need to support you, but must still provide for your three kids as long as they become independent.